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Project Management
Questions:
Multiple Choices:
Total Marks: 100
Q1. A
________________ is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product,
service, or result.
a) Program
b) Process
c) Project
d) Portfolio
Q2. Which of
the following is not a potential advantage of using good project management?
a) Shorter development
times
b) Higher worker
morale
c) Lower cost of
capital
d) Higher profit
margins
Q3. Which of
the following is not an attribute of a project?
a) Projects are
unique
b) Projects are
developed using progressive elaboration
c) Projects have a
primary customer or sponsor
d) Projects involve
little uncertainty
Q4. Which of
the following is not part of the triple constraint of project management?
a) Meeting scope
goals
b) Meeting time
goals
c) Meeting
communications goals
d) Meeting cost
goals
Q5. The first
stage of any project is
a) Proposal
b) Conceptualization
c) Implementation
d) Management
Q6. __________________
is the application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project
activities to meet project requirements.
a) Project
management
b) Program
management
c) Project portfolio
management
d) Requirements
management
Q7. Project
portfolio management addresses ____________________ goals of an organization,
while project management addresses _________________ goals.
a) Strategic,
tactical
b) Tactical,
strategic
c) Internal,
external
d) External,
internal
Q8. Several
application development projects done for the same functional group might best
be managed as part of a
a) Portfolio
b) Program
c) Investment
d) Collaborative
Q9. Which of
the following is not one of the top ten skills or competencies of an effective
project manager?
a) People skills
b) Leadership
c) Integrity
d) Technical skills
Q10. What is
the certification program called that the Project Management Institute
provides?
a) Microsoft Certified
Project Manager (MCPM)
b) Project Manager
Professional (PMP)
c) Project
Management Expert (PME)
d) Project
Management Mentor (PMM)
Q11. A
_________________ is a series of actions directed towards a particular result.
a) Goal
b) Process
c) Plan
d) Project
Q12. ____________________
Processes include coordinating people and other resource to carry out the
project plans and produce the products, service, or results of the project or
phase.
a) Initiating
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Monitoring &
controlling
Q13. Which
process group normally requires the most resources and time?
a) Initiating
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Monitoring and
controlling
Q14. A work
breakdown structure, project schedule, and cost estimates are outputs of the
process.
a) Initiating
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Monitoring and
controlling
Q15. Which
process group includes activities from each of the nine knowledge areas?
a) Initiating
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Monitoring and
controlling
Q16. Project
management as a profession is almost unique in having institutions concerned
with its development who promote what they term their
a) Body of language
b) Body of knowledge
c) Strategy
d) Work
Q17. Initiating
involves developing a project charter and preliminary project scope statement,
which are part of the project _____________________ management knowledge.
a) Integration
b) Scope
c) Communications
d) Risk
Q18. A
________________ describes how things should be done, and different
organizations often have different ways of doing things.
a) Regulation
b) Process
c) Standard
d) Methodology
Q19. ___________________
involves measuring progress toward project objectives and talking corrective
actions.
a) Initiating
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Monitoring and
controlling
Q20. What type
of report do project teams create to reflect on what went right with the
project?
a) Lessons – learned
report
b) Status report
c) Final project
report
d) Business case
Q21. Project
manager is responsible for
a) Overseeing change
b) Cross functional
activities
c) Ever changing set
of tasks
d) All above
Q22. Many
people use ________________ to have a standard format for preparing various
project management documents.
a) Methodologies
b) Templates
c) Project
management software
d) Standards
Q23. What is
the last step in the four – stage planning process for selecting information
technology projects?
a) Information
technology strategy planning
b) Business area
analysis
c) Project planning
d) Resource
allocation
Q24. A new
government law requires an organization to report data in anew way. Under which
category would a new information system project to provide this data fall?
a) Problem
b) Opportunity
c) Directive
d) Regulation
Q25. A
__________________ is a document that formally recognizes the existence of a
project and provides direction on the project’s objectives and management.
a) Project charter
b) Preliminary scope
statement
c) Business case
d) Project
management plan
Q26. ICOM
model, which is one of the major roles of project manager, stand for
a) Integrated
Constraint of Mechanism
b) Inputs, Outputs,
Constraints & Mechanism
c) Inputs, Outputs,
Constraints & Money
d) None
Q27. A
_______________ often includes sensitive information, so it should not be part
of the overall project plan for anyone to see.
a) Business case
b) Project charter
c) Personnel chart
d) Stakeholder
analysis
Q28. Which of
the following is not a suggestion for performing integrated change control?
a) Use good
configuration management
b) Minimize change
c) Establish a
formal change control system
d) View project
management as a process of constant communication and negotiation
Q29. _______________
refer(s) to all the work involved in creating the products of the projects and
processes used to create them.
a) Deliverables
b) Milestones
c) Scope
d) Product development
Q30. Assume you
have a project with major categories called planning, analysis, design, and
testing. What level of the WBS would these items fall under?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Q31. Which of
the following is not a best practice that can help in avoiding scope problems
on information technology projects?
a) Keep the scope
realistic
b) Use off-the-shelf
hardware and software whenever possible
c) Follow good
project management processes
d) Don’t involve too
many users in scope management
Q32. Having ascertains
the portfolio of projects obtained objectives for each of them, we have to move
to the next stage of the strategy process to balance the objectives
a) Policy deployment
b) Strategy matrix
c) Project
performance measurement
d) None
Q33. What major
restaurant chain terminated a large project after spending $170 million on it,
primarily because they realized the project scope was too much to handle?
a) Burger King
b) Pizza Hut
c) McDonalds
d) Taco Bell
Q34. Scope
____________________ is often achieved by a customer inspection and then sign –
off on key deliverables.
a) Verification
b) Validation
c) Completion
d) Close – out
Q35. Project
management software helps you develop a _________________, which serves as a
basis for creating Gantt charts, assigning resources, and allocating costs.
a) Project plan
b) Schedule
c) WBS
d) Deliverable
Q36. WBS (Work
Breakdown Structure) is also known as
a) Chunking
b) Unbundling
c) Both (a) &
(b)
d) None
Q37. What is
the first process in planning a project schedule?
a) Milestone
definition
b) Activity
definition
c) Activity resource
estimation
d) Activity
sequencing
Q38. Predecessors,
successes, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements,
constraints, imposed dates, and assumptions are all examples of ___________________.
a) Items in an
activity list
b) Items on a Gantt
chart
c) Milestone
attributes
d) Activity
attributes
Q39. As the
project manager for a software development project, you are helping to develop
its schedule. You decide that writing code for a system cannot start until sign
off on the analysis work. What type of dependency is this?
a) Technical
b) Mandatory
c) Discretionary
d) External
Q40. You cannot
start editing a technical report until someone else completes the first draft.
What type of dependency does this represent?
a) Finish – to –
start
b) Start – to –
start
c) Finish – to –
finish
d) Start – to –
finish
Q41. ………………….
Involves going through the cycle several times to test the effects of the
changes make on the outcomes.
a) Planning
b) Strategy
c) Iterative
d) None
Q42. Above
figure shows two activities A & B; B cannot start until A finished and the
times for A & B are 5 and 7 days respectively. This logic is known as
a) Dependency
b) Precedence
c) Freedom
d) None
Q43. In the
above figure calculate the EET (earliest event time) at 20.
a) 10
b) 20
c) 5
d) 25
e) 10
f) 0
g) 20
h) 0
i) A
j) 5Days
k) 12
l) 3
m) A B
n) 5Days 7Days
Q44. What
symbol on a Gantt chart represents a slipped milestone?
a) A black arrow
b) A white arrow
c) A black diamond
d) A white diamond
Q45. What type
of diagram shows planned and actual project schedule information?
a) A network
b) A Gantt chart
c) A Tracking
d) A milestone chart
Q46. ____________________
is a network diagramming technique used to predict total project duration.
a) PERT
b) A Gantt chart
c) Critical path
method
d) Crashing
Q47. Which of
the following statement is false?
a) “Growing grass”
was on the critical path for a large theme park project.
b) The critical path
is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which a project
can be completed.
c) A forward pass
through a project network diagram determines the early start and early finish
dates for each activity.
d) Fast tracking is
a technique for marking cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the
obtain the greatest
amount of schedule comparison for the least incremental cost.
Q48. _____________________
is a method of scheduling that considers limited resources when creating a
project schedule and includes buffers to protect the project completion date.
a) Parkinson’s Law
b) Murphy’s Law
c) Critical path
analysis
d) Critical chain
scheduling
Q49. _______________
is a resource scarified or foregone to achieve a specific objective or
something given up in exchange.
a) Money
b) Liability
c) Trade
d) Cost
Q50. What is
main goal of project cost management?
a) To complete a
project for as little cost as possible
b) To complete a
project within an approved budget
c) To provide
truthful and accurate cost information on projects
d) To ensure that an
organization’s money is used widely
Q51. A
fundamental of ‘Theory of Constraints’ (TOC) is to manage systems by focusing
on the constraints, termed as
a) Watermark
b) Bottleneck
c) Tick-sheet
d) None
Q52. “An
activity will expand to fill the time available”; it is
a) Newton’s Law
b) Parkinson’s Law
c) Einstein’s Law
d) None
Q53. Which of
the following is not a key output of project cost management?
a) A cost estimate
b) A cost management
plan
c) Updates to the
cost management plan
d) A cost baseline
Q54. If a
company loses $5 for every $100 in revenue for a certain product, what is
profit margin for that product?
a) -5 percent
b) 5 percent
c) -$5
d) $5
Q55. __________________
reserves allow for future situations that are unpredictable.
a) Contingency
b) Financial
c) Management
d) Baseline
Q56. You are
preparing a cost estimate for a building based on its location, purpose, number
of square feet, and other characteristics. What cost estimating technique are
you using?
a) Parametric
b) Analogous
c) Bottom – up
d) Top – down
Q57. ______________
involves allocating the project cost estimate to individual work items over
time.
a) Reserve analysis
b) Life cycle
costing
c) Project cost
budgeting
d) Earned value
analysis
Q58. _________________
is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope time, and
cost data.
a) Reserve analysis
b) Life cycle
costing
c) Project cost
budgeting
d) Earned value
analysis
Q59. If the
actual cost for a WBS item is $1500 and its earned value was $2000, what is its
cost variance, and is it under or over budget?
a) The cost variance
is -$500, which is over budget
b) The cost variance
is -$500, which is under budget
c) The cost variance
is $500, which is over budget
d) The cost variance
is $500, which is under budget
Q60. If a
project is halfway completed and its schedule performance index is 110% and its
cost performance index is 95%, how is it progressing?
a) It is ahead of
schedule and under budget
b) It is ahead of
schedule and over budget
c) It is behind schedule
and under budget
d) It is behind
schedule and over budget
Q61. To
determine the cost of particular element in advance of the project, which
technique can be employed?
a) Parametric
estimating
b) As…………but…………s
c) Forecasts
d) All above
Q62. _______________
is the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements.
a) Quality
b) Conformance to
requirements
c) Fitness for use
d) Reliability
Q63. What is
the purpose of project quality management?
a) To produce the
highest quality products and services possible
b) To ensure that
appropriate quality standards are met
c) To ensure that
the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken
d) All of the above
Q64. _______________
generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project
practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products
within or outside the performing organization.
a) Quality audits
b) Design of
experiments
c) Six Sigma
d) Benchmarking
Q65. What tool
could you use to determine whether a process is in control or out of control?
a) A cause – and –
effect diagram
b) A control chart
c) A run chart
d) A scatter chart
Q66. Complication
to the critical path represents the formation of compound series of activities
often involving different paths which has been termed
a) The critical
chain
b) The critical path
c) TOC
d) Resource path
Q67. Six
Sigma’s target for perfection is the achievement of no more than
________________ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities.
a) 6
b) 9
c) 3.4
d) 1
Q68. The seven
run rule states that if seven data points in a row on a control chart are all
below the mean, above the means, or all increasing or decreasing, then the
process needs to be examined for _________________ problems.
a) Random
b) Non – random
c) Six Sigma
d) Quality
Q69. What is
the preferred order for performing testing on information technology projects?
a) Unit testing,
integration testing, system testing, user acceptance testing
b) Unit testing,
system testing, integration testing, user acceptance testing
c) Unit testing,
system testing, user acceptance testing, integration testing
d) Unit testing,
integration testing, user acceptance testing, system testing
Q70. ___________________
is known for his work on quality control in Japan and developed the 14 points
for Management in his text Out of the Crisis.
a) Juran
b) Deming
c) Crosby
d) Ishikawa
Q71. The theory
of constraints (TOC) is successfully applied in
a) Planning
b) Checking
c) Manufacturing
d) Controlling
Q72. PMI’s OPM3
is an example of a ____________________ model or framework for helping
organization improve their processes and systems.
a) Benchmarking
b) Six Sigma
c) Maturity
d) Quality
Q73. Which of
the following is not part of project human resource management?
a) Resource
estimating
b) Acquiring the
project team
c) Developing the
project team
d) Managing the
project team
Q74. _________________
causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment.
a) Intrinsic
motivation
b) Extrinsic
motivation
c) Self motivation
d) Social motivation
Q75. At the
bottom of Maslow’s pyramid or hierarchy of needs are _____________ needs.
a) Self –
actualization
b) Esteem
c) Safety
d) Physiological
Q76. ________________
power is based on a person’s individual charisma.
a) Affiliation
b) Referent
c) Personality
d) Legitimate
Q77. What
technique can you use to resolve resource conflicts by delaying tasks?
a) Resource loading
b) Resource leveling
c) Critical path
analysis
d) Over allocation
Q78. Which of
the following is not a tool or technique for managing project team?
a) Observation and
conversation
b) Project
performance appraisals
c) Issue logs
d) Social Styles
Profile
Q79. What do
many experts agree is the greatest threat to the success of any project?
a) Lack of proper
funding
b) A failure to
communicate
c) Poor listening
skills
d) Inadequate
staffing
Q80. Which
communication skill is most important for information technology professionals
for career advancement?
a) Writing
b) Listening
c) Speaking
d) Using
communication technologies
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Q81. Which of
the following is not a process in project communication management?
a) Information
planning
b) Information
distribution
c) Performance
reporting
d) Managing
stakeholders
Q82. A building
may not be constructed unless the planning permission for it has been obtained,
this is the
a) Legal constraint
b) Quality
constraint
c) Cost constraint
d) Logic constraint
Q83. A
________________ report describes where the project stands at a specific point
in time.
a) Status
b) Performance
c) Forecast
d) Earned value
Q84. __________________
is an uncertainly that can have a negative or positive effect on meeting
project objectives.
a) Risk utility
b) Risk tolerance
c) Risk management
d) Risk
Q85. A person
who is a risk – ______________ receives greater satisfaction when more payoffs
is at stake and is willing to pay a penalty to take risks.
a) Averse
b) Seeking
c) Neutral
d) Aware
Q86. Which risk
management process involves prioritizing based on their probability and impact
of occurrence?
a) Risk management
planning
b) Risk
identification
c) Qualitative risk
analysis
d) Quantitative risk
analysis
Q87. The 7-S
framework of project management issues was promoted by
a) McJonald and Co.
b) McKinsly and Co.
c) J & K Co.
d) None
Q88. Your
project involves using a new release of a software application, but if that
release is not available, your team has ______________ plans to use the current
release.
a) Contingency
b) Fallback
c) Reserve
d) Mitigation
Q89. A risk
_________________ is a document that contains results of various risk
management processes, often displayed in a table or spreadsheet format.
a) Management plan
b) Register
c) Breakdown
structure
d) Probability /
impact matrix
Q90. Your
project team has decided not to use an upcoming release of software because it
might cause your schedule to slip. Which negative risk response strategy are
you using?
a) Avoidance
b) Acceptance
c) Transference
d) Mitigation
Q91. For non
critical activities, network diagrams build in …………………………. at the start of
activities.
a) Temporary
b) Buffer
c) Slack
d) Anywhere
Q92. If a
project being undertaken by a particular project team, then these are referred
as
a) Resource
capability
b) Resource capacity
c) Resource calendar
d) Resource pool
Q93. The
term ‘hedgehog syndrome’ means
a) Management
problem
b) Solving problem
c) Repetition of
problem
d) Find out a
problem
Q94. What is
the first procurement process?
a) Planning
contracting
b) Planning
purchasing and acquisitions
c) Requesting seller
responses
d) Procurement
management planning
Q95. The
_____________ is the point at which the contractor assumes total responsibility
for each additional dollar of contract cost.
a) A breakeven point
b) Share ratio point
c) Point of reconciliation
d) Point of total
assumption
Q96. We’re
standing on this hill here. We want to be on that hill over there, this is
a) View
b) Vision
c) Mission
d) Aim
Q97. A
______________________ is a document prepared by a seller when there are
different approaches for meeting buyer needs.
a) RFP
b) RFQ
c) Proposal
d) Quote
Q98. Buyers
often prepare a ______________________ list when selecting a seller to make
this process more manageable.
a) Preferred
b) Short
c) Qualified
suppliers
d) BAFO
Q99. A proposal
evaluation sheet is an example of a(n) ______________________.
a) RFP
b) NPV analysis
c) Earned value
analysis
d) Weighted scoring
model
Q100. __________________
is a term used to describe various procurement functions that are now done
electronically.
a) E – procurement
b) eBay
c) E – commerce
d) EMV
Need Answer Sheet of this Question
paper, contact
aravind.banakar@gmail.com
www.mbacasestudyanswers.com
ARAVIND – 09901366442 – 09902787224
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